Flash News

Urinary Tract Infection

Urinary Tract Infection

Definitiion :

  • The Urethra was small in women than children and men, Due to small size of Urethra in women the affecting chances of infection is more.
  • It mostly affected to 16 - 35 years of people.

Ethiology :

  • Every year 150 million people are suffering with Urinary Tract Infection.

Types :

          Urinary Tract Infection is mostly two types.

1. Upper Urinary Tract Infection.
2. Lower Urinary Tract Infection.

1. Upper Urinary Tract Infection :

          In Upper Urinary Tract Infection the affected parts are Kidney, Ureters.

Symptoms :

  • Flank pain ( pain two sides to the Stomach )
  • Fever with chills.
  • Burning sensation in urine.
  • Nausea
  • Vomitings

2. Lower Urinary Tract Infection :

          In Lower Urinary Tract Infection the affected parts are Urinary Bladder, Urethra.

Symptoms :

  • Feeling sensation of regular passage of urine 
  • Burning sensation in urine.
  • Pain during passing of urine.
  • Blood in urine
  • Pus in urine

In Children :

  • Fever
  • Decreased appetite.
  • Vomiting
  • Sleeping more time
  • Urinary incontinence

Causes :

  • Mainly 80-85% E. Coli virus and fungus entering to the Urinary Bladder  through blood circulation or lymph or intestine.
  • Decreasing the immunity power.
  • Unhygienic practices.
  • Insertion of catheter during pregnancy
  • Irregular formation of urinary system
  • Sex ( Menopause of women )
  • Prostate gland diseases in men
  • Diabetic, Stone formation in kidney, Trauma of spinal cord,

Complications :






Blood Pressure Multiple Choice Questions

Blood Pressure Multiple Choice Questions

01. During the sleep blood pressure
A. Increase
B. Decrease
C. Does not change
D. First decrease then change

Answer : Decrease

02. To avoid an error while measuring blood pressure, the nurse should ( Bccl Staff Nurse exam 2015 )
A. Use a narrow cuff
B. Stand close to the manometer
C. Elevate the client's arm on a pillow
D. Read at eye level

Answer : D



Hand Washing Multiple Choice Questions

Hand Washing Multiple Choice Questions

Aim of hand wash :

     The aim of hand washing is to remove microorganisms from the hands, preventing their potential transfer. It is known that organisms survive and multiply on human hands, creating the opportunity to infect others or the host. 6 hand washing steps reduces the number of transient organisms on the skin surface. Although hands cannot be sterilized, most transient organisms can be removed by 30 seconds of proper scrubbing with soap and water

01.Which of the following is considered as the most important aspect of hand washing ?
(a) soap
(b) water
(c) friction
(d) Time

Answer : friction.

02. What is the time duration for soap water hand washing
a. 20-30 sec
b. 2 minutes
c. 40-60 sec
d. 

Answer : 40-60 sec

03. What is the time duration for hand rub hand washing
a. 
b.20 sec
c.
d.

Answer : 20 Sec

04. What is the time duration for surgical hand washing
a.
b.
c.
d.

Answer : 

05. How many step are in the hand washing procedure

a. 8 steps
b.7 steps
c. 9 steps
d. 5 steps

Answer : 7 Steps

06. Importance of hand washing

a. 
b. Prevention of infection
c.
d.

Answer :

07. How long hands to be rubbed together for effective hand washing
A. 1 minute
B. 15 seconds
C. 20 seconds
D. 45 seconds

Answer : C

08. When a nurse is performing a surgical hand hygiene. She must keep
A. Below elbows
B. At 45 degree angle
C. Above elbows
D. In a comfortable position

Answer : Above elbow

Description :
In Medical hand washing - hands below to elbow
In Surgical hand washing - hands above to elbow

Related Posts :

M.Sc Nursing Entrance Sample Question Paper - 02

M.Sc Nursing Entrance Sample Question Paper - 02

01. What is the priority nursing assessment in the first 24 hours after admission of the client with Thromobtic Cerebrovascular accident
a. Pupil size and pupillary response
b. Cholesterol level
c. Echocardiogram
d. Bowel sounds

Answer : A

02. A client with head injury is confused, drowsy and has unequal pupils. Which of the following nursing diagnosis is a priority at this time
a. Altered level of cognitive function
b. High risk for injury
c. Altered cerebral tissue perfusin
d. Sensory perceptual alteration

Answer : A

03. Which of the following conditions is an early symptom commonly seen in Myasthenia gravis
a. dysphagia
b. Ptosis
c. Fatigue improving at the end of the day
d. Respiratory distress.

Answer : D

04. The early indicator of hypoxia in the unconscious client is
a. Cyanosis
b. Increased respirations
c. Hypertension
d. Restlessness

Answer : A

05. Starvation, diabetic Ketoacidosis, shock and diarrhea may lead to
a. Respiratory acidosis
b. Metabolic alkalosis
c. Metabolic acidosis
d. Respiratory alkalosis

Answer : C

06. Measles vaccine is kept in refrigerator in
a. Chilled tray
b. Freezer
c. Tray below the freezer
d. Shelf in the door of refrigerator

Answer : A

07. A freshly prepared ORS should not be used after
a. 24 hours
b. 12 hours
c. 6 hours
d. 4 hours

Answer : a

08. ORS does not contain
a. Sodium chloride
b. Calcium lactate
c. Sodium bicarbonate
d. Glucose

Answer : C

09. In case of dog bite, the biting animal should be observed for
a. 5 days
b. 10 days
c. 15 days
d. 3 weeks

10. Alma ata conference was held in
a. 1977
b. 1978
c. 1946
d. 1948

Answer : A

11. Given below which one is live attenuated vaccine
a. Salk
b. Hepatitis
c. Cholera
d. BCG

Answer : D

12. Colostrum is rich in
a. Protein
b. Mineral
c. Carbohydrate
d. Fats

Answer : D

13. DOTS ( Directly Observed Treatment, Short course ) is used for treatment of
a. Tuberculosis
b. Malaria
c. Filaria
d. Leprosy

Answer : A

14. Which staining technique used in RNTCP ( Revised National Tuberculosis Control Programme )
a. Zeihl Nelson Stain
b. Gram stain
c. PAS
d. Ghensa Stain

Answer : b

15. For controlling outbreak of cholera which of the following measures except 
a. Mass chemo prophylaxis
b. Proper disposal of excreta
c. Chlorination of water
d. Early detection of cases and management

Answer : c

16. BCG vaccine is prepared by mixing
a. Distilled water
b. Normal saline
c. Dextrose solution
d. Ringer's lactate

Answer : A

17. Commonest complication of mumps is
a. Orchitis and oopheritis
b. Encephilitis
c. Pneumonia
d. Myocarditis

Answer : C

18. Community health centre
a. Has 100 beds
b. Covers one lakh population
c. Acts as a referrel hospital for community block
d. Has 200 beds

Answer : C

19. Infant who has been only on milk feed develops iron deficiency anaemia because
a. Large number of red blood cells are destroyed during infancy.
b. Milk interferes with iron absorption
c. Milk is poor source of iron
d. Milk impairs the production of red blood cells

Answer : C

20. Which teaching method would be most appopriate to teach to group of women change their attitude towards girl child
a. Role play
b. Lecture
c. Discussion
d. Symposium

Answer : C

21. In comparison to cow's milk which one of the following is more in human milk
a. Lactose
b. Proteins
c. Minerals
d. Iron

Answer : A

22. All the diseases given below are water borne except
a. Leptospirosis
b. Schistosomasis
c. Typhoid fever
d. Brucellosis

Answer : C

23. Vector of Kala azar is
a. Flea
b. Tsetse fly
c. Sand fly
d. Mosquito

Answer : C

24. The time interval between the invasion of an agent and appearance of the sign and symptoms of disease is
a. Latent period
b. Quarantine
c. Incubation period
d. Termination period

Answer : C

25. Case finding in RNTCP is based on
a. Sputum examination
b. Sputum microscopy exam
c. X-ray chest
d. Montoux test

Answer : D


Hyperkalemia Multiple Choice Questions

Hyperkalemia Multiple Choice Questions

01. Which of the following is used in the management of hyperkalaemia
a. Insulin with glucose
b. Sodium bicarbonate
c. Potassium chloride
d. Magnesium sulphate

Answer : D


02. If the patient have  acute hyperkalemia, which should be administered first?
A. Calcium
B. Sodium Chloride
C. Dextrose
D. Sodium bicarbonate
E. Magnesium


Answer : A

Related Posts :


  • Case Study On Hyperkalemia


M.Sc Nursing Entrance Sample Question Paper - 01

M.Sc Nursing Entrance Sample Question Paper - 01

01. Which one of the following does not act as a neurotransmitter ?
a. Cortisone
b. Acetylcholine
c. epinephrine
d. Norepinephrine

Answer : A


02. An assessment specific to safe administration of iv mannitol is
a. Vital signs 4 hourly
b. Weighine daily
c. Urine output hourl
d. Level of consciousness 4 hourly

Answer : A


03. Inability to speak or understand the spoken words is called as

a. Insomnia
b. Aphraxia
c. Agnosia
d. Aphasia

Answer : B


04. Which of the following is characteristic of a patient with advanced Parkinson's disease 

a. Disturbed vision
b. Forgetfulness
c. Tremors
d. Muscle atrophy

Answer : B


05. The clinical manifestations of a nurse should expect in a patient with Acute Lymphycytic Leukemia are

a. Petechiae, alopecia
b. Anaemia, insomnia
c. Anaemia, petechiae
d. Alopecia, Bleeding gums

Answer : D


06. Which of the following ECG finding indicate the presence of hypkalemia

a. Tall, peak 'T' wave 
b. ST Segment depression
c. Widening of QRS complex
d. Prolonged PR interval

Answer : B


07. Which of the following is most important to prevent the progress of disease in the thromo angiitis obliterans ( Buerger's disease ) ?

a. Controlling blood pressure
b. Controlling diabetes
c. Weight reduction
d. smoking cessation

Answer : D


08. Which of the following findings is the best indication that fluid replacement for the client with hypovolemic shock is adequate 

a. Urine output greater than 30 ml/hr
b. Respiratory rate of 21 breaths / minute
c. Diastolic blood pressure greater than 90 mm of Hg
d. Systolic blood pressure greater than 110 m of Hg

Answer : D


09. Nurse is caring for a client with active upper G.I. bleeding. What is the appropriate diet for this client during the first 24 hours after admission

a. regular diet
b. Skim milk
c. Nothing by mouth
d. Clear fluids

Answer : D

10. Dummping syndrome is a complication of

a. Colectomy
b. Subtotal gastrectomy
c. Nephrectomy
d. Histerectomy

Answer : B 


11. During diuretic phase of acute renal failure, the client must be assessed for signs of developing

a. Hypovolemia
b. Renal failure
c. Metabolic acidosis
d. Hyperkalemia

Answer : B


12. Which of the following cannot be correct by dialysis

a. Hypernatraemia
b. Hyperkalemia
c. Elevated creatinine
d. Decreased haemoglobin.

Answer : D


13. A kayexalate enema is ordered for a client who has acute renal failure. What is the primay purpose of the Kayexalate enema

a. To emove fluid from the extracellular spaces
b. to exchange K ions for Na ions
c. to reduce abdominal pressure
d. To introduce potassium into the bowel

Answer : C


14. Hypoparathyroidism is characterized by

a. High serum calcium
b. Low serum calcium
c. High serum potassium
d. Low serum potassium

15. What should be included in the nursing care plan for a clent with diabetes insipidus

a. Blood pressure every hour
b. Strict intake and output
c. Urine for Ketone bodies
d. Glucose monitoring four times a day

Answer : D


16. What is the priority nursing care to a client with sever hyperthyroidism

a. Assess for recent emotional trauma
b. Provide a calm, non-stimulating environment
c. Provide diversional activity
d. Encourage range of motion exercises

Answer : B


17. Which of the following laboratory findings indicated pancreatitis

a. Elevated blood urea nitrogen ( BUN )
b. Elevated aspartate aminotransferase ( AST )
c. Elevated Serum Lipase
d. Increased lactate dehydrogenase ( LD )

Answer : C

18. Which of the following is used in the management of hyperkalemia

a. Insulin with glucose
b. Sodium bicarbonate
c. Potassium chloride
d. Magnesium sulphate

Answer : A


19. Which of the following assessment is essential in administering total Parenteral Nutriton

a. Evaluation of the peripheral IV site
b. Confirmation that the tube is in the stomach
c. Assess the bowel sound
d. Fluid and Electrolyte monitoring

Answer : D


20. Which medication will be ordered for a client with pulmonary emolism

a. Warfarin
b. Heparin
c. Streptokinase
d. Acyclovir

Answer : D


21. The client with Deep Venous Thrombosis ( DVT ) is at highest risk to develop

a. Pulmonary embolism
b. Pnemothorax
c. Pulmonary oedema
d. Pneumonia

Answer : C


22. In caring for a client after cataract surgery, the nurse should notifiy physician if the client has

a. Blurred vision
b. Glare
c. Eye pain
d. itching

Answer : A


23. A client is admitted with a C6 spinal injury. The client most likely has which condition

a. Aphasia
b. Paraplegia
c. Hemiparesis
d. Quadriplegia

Answer : B


24. Antioxidant include all of the following except

a. Vitamin K
b. Vitamie E
c. Vitamine A
d. Beta Carotenes

Answer : D


25. A client is admitted with the diagnosis of BPH. Which symptom is least likely to be present in the client

a. Urinary frequency
b. Pus in the urine
c. Dribbling
d. Decreased force of urine stream

Answer : A


Palinopsia

Palinopsia

History : 

In greek palinopsia means palin " again " and opsia means " seeing ".

Causes :


  • Using Medications
  • Idiopathic
  • Head injury

Staff Nurse Jobs in NIMS, TELANGANA.

Staff Nurse Jobs In Nizam Institute of Medical Institute.


Name Of the Post : Junior Staff Nurse internees.

No of Posts : 100

Age : 18 - 34 years,

Educational Qualifications :
1. Must have passed B.Sc Nursing
2. Must have registered with Nursing council.

Application fee :
SC/ST Candidates has to pay 500/-
OBC/Gen Candidates has to pay 1000/-

          The amount should be paid by the way of D.D or Cash at NIMS Cash counter


Last Date : 30-4-2016.

Application Method :

          The application through the offline method. Take a print from the university website or link given below. Fill the application and send to the following address with the required documents.

Address :
The Executive Registrar,
Nizam's Institute of Medical Sciences,
Panjagutta,
Hyderabad,
Telangana,
Pin : 500 082.

Required Documents :
1. 10th Class memo
2. Intermediate marks memo
3. Nursing Registration Certificates.
4.Provisional degree certificates.
5. Experience Certificate if any
6. Cast & Community / Nativity Certificate.
7. Photo Identity Proof if any
8. Marks of memo of B.Sc Nursing.